Immaculate Deception

By David J. Stewart | May 2007

       I want to speak to you about Immaculate Deception of Mary which the Catholic Church teaches.  Actually, they call this false doctrine the IMMACULATE CONCEPTION OF MARY; but I renamed it to the "Immaculate Deception," because that is exactly what it is.  There is NO bigger lie today than the heresy that Mary was without sin.

Read what the Catholic's teach for yourself...

The Immaculate Conception means that Mary, whose conception was brought about the normal way, was conceived without original sin or its stainóthatís what "immaculate" means: without stain. The essence of original sin consists in the deprivation of sanctifying grace, and its stain is a corrupt nature. Mary was preserved from these defects by Godís grace; from the first instant of her existence she was in the state of sanctifying grace and was free from the corrupt nature original sin brings...

Since this term is in the perfect tense, it indicates that Mary was graced in the past but with continuing effects in the present. So, the grace Mary enjoyed was not a result of the angelís visit. In fact, Catholics hold, it extended over the whole of her life, from conception onward. She was in a state of sanctifying grace from the first moment of her existence. [emphasis added]

SOURCE: (webpage gone)

Only a fool would believe that Mary was sinless in lieu of Romans 5:12... "Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned."  Of course, the Catholics, in an attempt to cover up one lie, had to fabricate another lie--the Assumption of Mary.  If Mary never sinned, then how could she die, because the Bible says the wages of sin is death (Romans 6:23).  So Catholics manufactured another heresy which claims that Mary was bodily "assumed" into Heaven and never saw death.  This reminds me of a little child who is telling one whopping lie after another to weasel his way around the truth.  Why don't Catholics just admit the truth that Catholicism is of the Devil!

According to WIKIPEDIA.COM...

The Immaculate Conception is, according to Roman Catholic dogma, the conception of Mary, the mother of Jesus without any stain of original sin, in her mother's womb: the dogma thus says that, from the first moment of her existence, she was preserved by God from the lack of sanctifying grace that afflicts mankind, and that she was instead filled with divine grace. It is further believed that she lived a life completely free from sin. [emphasis added on last sentence]


Lies! Lies! and more lies!  Jesus' mother was a dirty, rotten, sinner just like Adolf Hitler or any other sinner.  James 2:10 states, "For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all."  I don't care if you've only committed a small handful of sins in your life, you are as guilty IN THE EYES OF GOD as a mass-murdering criminal.  Committing even one sin is enough to bring a person under the condemnation of God's Law; thus, sentencing them to eternal Hellfire.  So the question is... did Jesus' mother ever sin one time?  According to the Bible she did.  Catholics pervert the Scriptures, claiming that Romans 3:23 doesn't apply to Mary, when it states... "For ALL have sinned."  What part of ALL don't Catholics understand?  We know Jesus never sinned because the Bible tells us so (2nd Corinthians 5:21; Hebrews 4:15).  There is nothing mentioned in the Scriptures about Mary being sinless, without any corruption, or assumed into Heaven.

Luke 1:28 Does Not Support the Catholic Heresy of Immaculate Conception

According to

When discussing the Immaculate Conception, an implicit reference may be found in the angelís greeting to Mary. The angel Gabriel said, "Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with you" (Luke 1:28). The phrase "full of grace" is a translation of the Greek word kecharitomene. It therefore expresses a characteristic quality of Mary.

SOURCE: (webpage gone)

A literal translation of the TEXTUS RECEPTUS Greek in Luke 1:28 reads, "And entering, the angel said to her, Hail, one having received grace! The Lord is with you. You are blessed among women!" (SOURCE: THE INTERLINEAR BIBLE, Jay P. Green, Sr.; Sovereign Grace Publishers, ISBN: 1-878442-81-3).  Luke 1:28 in the King James Bible reads, "And the angel came in unto her, and said, Hail, thou that art highly favoured, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women."  The Greek word for "favoured" is charitoo, meaning, "to be highly favoured, make accepted."  The King James Bible is 100% correct.  The term "FULL OF GRACE," which Catholics have idolized in their Rosary recitals, is not a Biblical term concerning Mary.  The original Greek NEVER says Mary was "FULL" of grace; rather, it says that Mary received grace from God, just as every believer is entitled to by the precious blood of Jesus (Hebrews 4:16). 

Luke 1:28 in NO way gives credence, or implies, that Mary was born without a sin-nature or that she lived a sinless life.  For Roman Catholics to attempt to justify such a far-fetched and unbiblical doctrine on mere speculation is the height of unscholarly rubbish.  The ONLY mention of the phrase "full of grace" is reserved for Jesus Christ in the Scriptures, in John 1:14... "And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth."  Mary was never full of grace; but rather, she was the blessed recipient of God's grace, as is every born again believer.  Catholics have perverted the truth once again.  So the next time you hear a Catholic saying that Mary was "full of grace," you know they're full of something else.

Catholics Sinfully Claim the Right and Power to "Define" the Scriptures

Please read the following comments from

The Bible Only?

Since the Immaculate Conception and Assumption are not explicit in Scripture, Fundamentalists conclude that the doctrines are false. Here, of course, we get into an entirely separate matter, the question of sola scriptura, or the Protestant "Bible only" theory. There is no room in this tract to consider that idea. Let it just be said that if the position of the Catholic Church is true, then the notion of sola scriptura is false. There is then no problem with the Church officially defining a doctrine which is not explicitly in Scripture, so long as it is not in contradiction to Scripture. [emphasis added]

SOURCE: (webpage gone)

Carefully read the last sentence in the above quote.  Catholics claim that there's NO PROBLEM with the "Catholic Church officially defining a doctrine."  Oh really?  Since when is the Catholic Church the sole proprietor of the Scriptures?  Did God give them the right to decide what the Scriptures really mean?  Does not the Word of God speak clearly for Itself?  Yes, the Bible most certainly DOES!  Catholicism is of the Devil, because it perverts the Scriptures.  The Catholic Church has been fabricating manmade doctrines for centuries, under the pretense of "defining" ambiguous portions of Scripture.  The truth is that the Catholic Church perverts the Scriptures, and lies to their followers, claiming the right and power to twist the Bible, when they should leave God's Word alone.  Nearly everything the Catholic Church teaches contradicts the Scriptures!  To teach the bizarre notion that Mary was sinless and then assumed bodily into Heaven contradicts the Bible 100%.  The Bible needs no interpretation.  God said what He meant, and meant what He said!  The doctrine of the Immaculate Conception of Mary is an immaculate DECEPTION!